0% 0 votes, 0 avg 11 1234567891011121314151617181920212223242526272829303132333435363738394041424344454647484950515253545556575859606162636465 This quiz randomly generates 60 questions as asked in Cisco CCNA (200-301) Congratulations! CCNA Certification Exam (200-301) This quiz randomly generates 60 questions (in 60 mins) as asked in Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) certification (200-301). The real 200-301 CCNA test has 100-120 questions and a total time of 120 minutes. This test randomly generates 60 questions from our question bank. For best results, practice multiple times until you achieve 100% accuracy. 1 / 65 Which technology supports the stateless assignment of IPv6 addresses? DNS DHCPv6 DHCP autoconfiguration Autoconfiguration, specifically Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC), is the technology in IPv6 that allows a device to automatically configure its own unique IPv6 address without requiring a server to keep track of (maintain state for) the address assignments. This process uses ICMPv6 Router Solicitation and Router Advertisement messages to obtain the network prefix and default gateway information, then the host generates its own unique interface ID. A. DNS: DNS (Domain Name System) is used to translate domain names into IP addresses, but it is not the technology that assigns the IPv6 addresses themselves. DNS server information can be obtained via a stateless DHCPv6 server or manual configuration, but DNS itself is a naming service, not an address assignment protocol. B. DHCPv6: DHCPv6 can operate in both stateful and stateless modes. In stateful mode, the DHCPv6 server assigns the IPv6 address and maintains a database of leases, similar to IPv4 DHCP. In stateless mode, DHCPv6 is used in conjunction with SLAAC to provide additional information (like DNS server addresses) but does not assign the primary IPv6 address itself, which is still generated by the host using autoconfiguration (SLAAC). Therefore, autoconfiguration is the primary stateless address assignment mechanism. C. DHCP: DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is primarily an IPv4 protocol and does not natively support IPv6 address assignment. The IPv6 version is DHCPv6. 2 / 65 In a Wireless LAN, what is the role of a Wireless LAN Controller (WLC) in a "Split-MAC" architecture? It handles real-time MAC operations like beaconing and frame acknowledgment. It stores the data traffic locally so it doesn't have to travel to the wired network. It manages centralized tasks like security, roaming, and radio resource management. It provides power to the Access Points via Ethernet cables. Explanation: In a Split-MAC architecture (used with Lightweight APs), the Access Point handles "real-time" tasks (like frame encryption/acknowledgment), while the WLC handles "management" tasks (like authentication and coordination across multiple APs). The AP and WLC communicate via the CAPWAP protocol. 3 / 65 Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected via their serial interfaces as illustrated, but they are unable to communicate. The Atlanta router is known to have the correct configuration. Given the partial configurations, identify the fault on the Brevard router that is causing the lack of connectivity incompatible IP address insufficient bandwidth incorrect subnet mask incompatible encapsulation link reliability too low IPCP closed 4 / 65 Which of the following range is reserved for experimental/future use? (128.0.0.0 – 191.255.255.255) (192.0.0.0 – 223.255.255.255) (224.0.0.0 – 239.255.255.255) (0.0.0.0 – 127.255.255.255) (240.0.0.0 – 255.255.255.255) Class A (0.0.0.0 – 127.255.255.255): Reserved for large organizations; 127.x.x.x is used for loopback/testing. Class B (128.0.0.0 – 191.255.255.255): Used for medium to large networks. Class C (192.0.0.0 – 223.255.255.255): Used for small networks. Class D (224.0.0.0 – 239.255.255.255): Reserved for multicast groups. Class E (240.0.0.0 – 255.255.255.255): Reserved for experimental/future use. Private IP Address Ranges (Non-Routable): Class A Private: 10.0.0.0 – 10.255.255.255. Class B Private: 172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255. Class C Private: 192.168.0.0 – 192.168.255.255. APIPA (Automatic Private IP): 169.254.0.0 – 169.254.255.255. 5 / 65 Which command is used to configure a Cisco router to synchronize its internal clock with an external time source at IP address 209.165.200.225? ntp peer 209.165.200.225 clock set 209.165.200.225 ntp server 209.165.200.225 snmp-server host 209.165.200.225 6 / 65 What is the function of a Site-to-Site IPsec VPN's "Phase 1" (IKEv1/IKEv2)? To encrypt the actual user data (payload). To establish a secure management channel between the two VPN endpoints. To assign IP addresses to remote clients. To check if the remote office has a valid antivirus. Explanation: Phase 1 creates a secure "tunnel for the tunnel." It authenticates the peers and negotiates encryption for the control traffic. Once Phase 1 is secure, Phase 2 (IPsec) is negotiated to actually move the user data. 7 / 65 In 172.16.10.16/24 network how many hosts are possible? 16 14 256 254 8 / 65 When viewing a JSON data object, what do square brackets [ ] represent? A single key-value pair. An unordered list of objects. An ordered array or list of values. The beginning and end of the entire JSON file. Explanation: In JSON (JavaScript Object Notation), curly braces { } define an object (a collection of key-value pairs), while square brackets [ ] define an array (a list of multiple values or objects). For example, "interfaces": ["Gig0/0", "Gig0/1"] is an array of strings. 9 / 65 What is the Default Subnet Masks for Class B IPv4 addresses? 255.0.0.0 (or /8) 255.255.0.0 (or /16) 255.255.255.0 (or /24) 255.255.255.255 (or /32) 10 / 65 Is the address 10.1.5.63/26 a host address, a network ID, or a broadcast address? Host address Network ID Broadcast address None of the above Explanation: For /26, increments are 64. Subnets are .0, .64, .128. The broadcast for the .0 subnet is .63. Wait—rechecking: 10.1.5.0 to 10.1.5.63. Correction: It is the Broadcast address for the 10.1.5.0/26 subnet. 11 / 65 Which command sequence can you enter to create VLAN 20 and assign it to an interface on a switch? Switch(config)#vlan 20Switch(config)#Interface gig x/ySwitch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20 Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y Switch(config-if)#vlan 20 Switch(config-vlan)#switchport access vlan 20 Switch(config)#vlan 20 Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20 Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 20 Switch(config)#vlan 20 Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20 Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20 Switch(config)#vlan 20 Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20 Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 20 The correct command sequence to create VLAN 20 and assign it to an interface is: A. Switch(config)#vlan 20 Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20 Reasoning Step 1: vlan 20 – This command enters VLAN configuration mode and creates the VLAN in the switch's database. Step 2: interface gig x/y – This enters the configuration mode for the specific physical interface. Step 3: switchport access vlan 20 – This command assigns the interface to VLAN 20. On most modern Cisco switches, this command also implicitly sets the port to access mode if not already configured, though it is best practice to precede it with switchport mode access. Why the others are incorrect: B: You cannot create a VLAN by typing the vlan command while inside a physical interface's configuration mode (config-if). C, D, and E: These options use interface vlan 20, which creates a VLAN Interface (a Layer 3 Switch Virtual Interface or SVI). This is used for routing and management, not for assigning a physical switch port to a VLAN. Furthermore, switchport commands are Layer 2 commands and cannot be applied to an SVI. 12 / 65 Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router? ipv6 local ipv6 host ipv6 unicast-routing ipv6 neighbor The correct command to enable IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router is C. ipv6 unicast-routing. Explanation: By default, Cisco routers have IPv4 routing enabled, but IPv6 routing is disabled. Even if you assign IPv6 addresses to interfaces, the router will only act as an IPv6 host (it can ping its own addresses or those on the same subnet) but will not forward packets between interfaces until this command is entered in global configuration mode. Why the others are incorrect: A. ipv6 local: This is used for configuring local IPv6 policy-based routing or attributes, not for enabling general forwarding. B. ipv6 host: This is used to define static host name-to-address mappings (similar to a local "hosts" file). D. ipv6 neighbor: This command is used to manually configure static entries in the IPv6 neighbor discovery (ND) cache, similar to static ARP in IPv4. 13 / 65 Which network topology is typically associated with Cisco ACI (Application Centric Infrastructure) and modern data center designs to effectively handle East-West traffic? Three-Tier Architecture Spine-Leaf Ring Hub-and-Spoke Explanation: Spine-Leaf (also known as Clos) topology connects every Leaf switch to every Spine switch. This minimizes latency and hops for server-to-server (East-West) communication, which is critical in modern virtualized data centers. 14 / 65 Which security concept refers to the practice of ensuring that a user or system is only granted the minimum level of access necessary to perform their job? Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) Principle of Least Privilege Defense in Depth Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) Explanation: The Principle of Least Privilege is a fundamental security rule aimed at reducing the "attack surface." By limiting a user's permissions to only what is required, you minimize the damage that could occur if that account is compromised. 15 / 65 How many subnets can you create from a /24 network if you borrow 3 bits? 2 8 16 32 16 / 65 A router receives a packet for 192.168.1.155. It has routes for 192.168.1.0/24 and 192.168.1.128/25. Which route will it use? 192.168.1.128/12 192.168.1.128/24 192.168.1.128/25 None of the above Explanation: The "Longest Prefix Match" rule states the router always chooses the most specific mask (/25 is more specific than /24). 17 / 65 Which switch will become the root bridge of a Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) instance? The switch with the highest Bridge ID (BID) The switch with the lowest Priority value The switch with the highest MAC address The switch with the most active ports B. The switch with the lowest Priority value (lower BID wins; priority is the first component of BID) 18 / 65 If you need 30 usable host addresses per subnet, what is the minimum subnet mask required? /7 /17 /27 /37 19 / 65 Which IP address range is reserved for Class A private internal use? 10.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.0 0.0.0.0 to 0.0.0.0 10.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.255 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 Per RFC 1918, this range is for private use and is not routable on the public internet. 20 / 65 In Ansible, what is a "Playbook"? A physical manual for network engineers. A YAML file that defines a series of tasks to be executed on a group of hosts. The software that must be installed on a Cisco switch to manage it. A database of MAC addresses. Explanation: Ansible Playbooks are written in YAML. They describe the "Play" (the set of actions) to be performed on the network devices. Since Ansible is agentless, the Playbook is executed on the control station and instructions are sent to the switches via SSH. 21 / 65 What is "Configuration Drift"? Moving a configuration file from one server to another. The process of upgrading the IOS image. When a device's actual configuration gradually deviates from the desired standard configuration. Using a floating static route for redundancy. Explanation: Configuration Drift occurs when administrators make manual, ad-hoc changes (e.g., "just for testing") and forget to revert them, causing the device to fall out of sync with the automated/standardized policy. 22 / 65 Which address is the "Loopback" address used for testing the local TCP/IP stack? 127.0.0.1 255.0.0.1 1.1.1.1 255.255.255.255 Explanation: The entire 127.0.0.0/8 range is reserved for loopback testing. 23 / 65 Which service is responsible for translating human-readable domain names (like www.cisco.com) into IP addresses? DHCP SNMP DNS NAT Explanation: DNS (Domain Name System) resolves domain names into IP addresses so users don't have to remember numeric addresses. DHCP assigns IP addresses to devices, and NAT translates private IPs to public IPs. 24 / 65 Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly connected Cisco devices? enable cdp cdp enable cdp run run cdp 25 / 65 A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection? Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# no shut Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp Main(config-if)# no shut Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay Main(config-if)# authentication chap Main(config-if)# no shut Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)#encapsulation ietf Main(config-if)# no shut 26 / 65 If a router has four interfaces and each interface is connected to four switches, how many broadcast domains are present on the router? 1 2 4 6 The correct number of broadcast domains present on the router is C. 4. Explanation A router inherently separates broadcast domains; each of its interfaces belongs to a different network segment. Each interface connected to a switch effectively creates a separate Layer 2 segment (broadcast domain) which that specific router interface terminates. Since the router has four distinct interfaces, there are four separate broadcast domains, one for each interface connection. 27 / 65 Which file format does Ansible use for its Playbooks? XML JSON YAML Python Explanation: Ansible Playbooks are written in YAML (Yet Another Markup Language / YAML Ain't Markup Language), which relies on indentation (whitespace) to define structure, making it very human-readable. 28 / 65 What is the key difference between XML and JSON? XML is only used for Python scripts. JSON is more verbose and harder to read than XML. JSON uses tags < >, while XML uses braces { }. JSON is lightweight and easier to parse, while XML is more verbose and uses tags. Explanation: JSON is favored in modern automation for being lightweight and readable. XML is heavier due to the repetitive start and end tags (<name>value</name>). 29 / 65 What is the default subnet mask for a Class B network? 255.0.0.0 (or /8) 255.255.0.0 (or /16) 255.255.255.0 (or /24) 224.0.0.0 Explanation: Class B addresses range from 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255. The first two octets are reserved for the network portion. 30 / 65 Which of the following describes "Intent-Based Networking" (IBN)? A network where users must state their intent before logging in. A manual process of configuring each router via the Command Line Interface (CLI). A system that uses business objectives (intent) to automatically configure and manage network policies. A network that only uses open-source software. Explanation: IBN is a revolutionary shift where the administrator defines the outcome (e.g., "Guest WiFi should not access the Finance Server"), and the SDN controller (like Cisco DNA Center) automatically translates that intent into specific configurations across all network devices. 31 / 65 How many host addresses are available in a standard Class C network? 8 32 254 64 32 / 65 What is the broadcast address for the subnet 172.16.10.32/28? 172.16.10.47 172.16.10.48 172.16.10.63 172.16.10.64 33 / 65 Which configuration management tool is "agentless" and uses SSH to communicate with managed network devices? Puppet Chef Ansible Terraform Explanation: Ansible is considered "agentless" because it does not require special software installed on the target device; it typically uses standard SSH to push configurations. Puppet and Chef generally require an "agent" (client software) to be running on the managed device. 34 / 65 Which of the following describes the function of a Collision Domain in a network connected by a modern Layer 2 switch? Each individual port on the switch represents its own collision domain. All ports on the switch belong to a single, large collision domain. Collision domains only exist if a router is used to separate them. A switch uses CSMA/CD to manage collisions across all ports simultaneously. Explanation: Switches operate in Full-Duplex mode, meaning they can send and receive data at the same time. Unlike a hub (which is one large collision domain), a switch creates a dedicated segment for each port, effectively eliminating collisions between devices on different ports. 35 / 65 Which of the following is a characteristic of the TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) that distinguishes it from UDP (User Datagram Protocol)? It uses "best-effort" delivery without error recovery. It has lower overhead and is faster for real-time applications like VoIP. It uses a three-way handshake to establish a connection-oriented session. It operates at Layer 3 of the OSI model. Explanation: TCP is connection-oriented and ensures reliability via a three-way handshake (SYN, SYN-ACK, ACK). It tracks sequence numbers and acknowledges received data. UDP is connectionless (no handshake), has lower overhead, and is "best-effort," making it better for streaming but less reliable than TCP. 36 / 65 What is the primary purpose of a "Dynamic NAT" (Network Address Translation) configuration? To map one internal private IP address to one specific public IP address permanently. To map a group of internal private IP addresses to a pool of available public IP addresses. To allow multiple internal users to share a single public IP address using port numbers. To provide a secure VPN tunnel between two branch offices. Explanation: Dynamic NAT uses a pool of public addresses and assigns them on a first-come, first-served basis. Option A describes Static NAT, and Option C describes PAT (Port Address Translation), also known as "NAT Overload." 37 / 65 Which fiber connector type is "Push-Pull" and typically used for high-density patching? ST (Straight Tip) SC (Subscriber Connector) LC (Lucent Connector) FC (Ferrule Connector) Explanation: The LC connector is a small form-factor connector (half the size of SC) that uses a locking tab similar to an RJ-45. Its small size makes it ideal for high-density switches. 38 / 65 Which two statements about late collisions are true? (Choose two.) They may indicate a duplex mismatch. By definition, they occur after the 512th bit of the frame has been transmitted. They indicate received frames that did not pass the FCS match. They are frames that exceed 1518 bytes. They occur when CRC errors and interference occur on the cable. The two true statements about late collisions are A and B. A. They may indicate a duplex mismatch. A common cause of late collisions in modern networks is a duplex mismatch between two connected devices (e.g., one set to full-duplex and the other to half-duplex). B. By definition, they occur after the 512th bit of the frame has been transmitted. This is the technical definition; if a collision occurs after the initial "collision window" (the first 64 bytes or 512 bits of the frame) has passed, it is classified as a late collision. Why other options are incorrect C. They indicate received frames that did not pass the FCS match. While a late collision may result in an FCS error on the receiving end, the late collision itself is a different counter/symptom. D. They are frames that exceed 1518 bytes. Frames that exceed the maximum legal Ethernet frame size (typically 1518 bytes) are called "giant" frames, which is a different issue. E. They occur when CRC errors and interference occur on the cable. CRC errors can be a symptom of the data corruption caused by collisions, but late collisions are a specific type of error related to timing/duplex, not just general interference. 39 / 65 Which configuration management tool is "Agentless" and uses SSH for communication? Chef Puppet Ansible SaltStack Explanation: Ansible does not require any special software (agent) to be installed on the target device. It connects via standard SSH (or NETCONF/HTTPS) and pushes the configuration. Puppet and Chef typically require agents. 40 / 65 Which of the following statement is true for Class C addresses? (128.0.0.0 – 191.255.255.255): Used for medium to large networks. (192.0.0.0 – 223.255.255.255): Used for small networks. (224.0.0.0 – 239.255.255.255): Reserved for multicast groups. (0.0.0.0 – 127.255.255.255): Reserved for large organizations; 127.x.x.x is used for loopback/testing. (240.0.0.0 – 255.255.255.255): Reserved for experimental/future use. Class A (0.0.0.0 – 127.255.255.255): Reserved for large organizations; 127.x.x.x is used for loopback/testing. Class B (128.0.0.0 – 191.255.255.255): Used for medium to large networks. Class C (192.0.0.0 – 223.255.255.255): Used for small networks. Class D (224.0.0.0 – 239.255.255.255): Reserved for multicast groups. Class E (240.0.0.0 – 255.255.255.255): Reserved for experimental/future use. Private IP Address Ranges (Non-Routable): Class A Private: 10.0.0.0 – 10.255.255.255. Class B Private: 172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255. Class C Private: 192.168.0.0 – 192.168.255.255. APIPA (Automatic Private IP): 169.254.0.0 – 169.254.255.255. 41 / 65 In a controller-based architecture, what is the function of a "Southbound API"? It allows the controller to communicate with applications and business logic. It allows the controller to communicate with the network devices (switches/routers). It connects two different SDN controllers for redundancy. It provides a graphical user interface (GUI) for the network administrator. Explanation: Southbound APIs (like OpenFlow, NETCONF, or OpFlex) are used by the controller to push configurations and policies down to the physical network devices. Northbound APIs face up toward applications. 42 / 65 Which of the following is the default binary prefix used for IPv6 Link-Local addresses? 2000::/3 FC00::/7 FE80::/10 FF00::/8 43 / 65 An administrator needs to connect an Autonomous Access Point (AP) that provides three different SSIDs, each mapped to a different VLAN. Which port type should be used on the switch to connect the AP? Access port Routed port Trunk port Virtual interface An access port can only carry traffic for a single VLAN. To support an AP handling multiple SSIDs (and thus multiple VLANs), a trunk port is required because it uses 802.1Q tagging to carry traffic for multiple VLANs over a single physical link. 44 / 65 What is the Default Subnet Masks for Class A IPv4 addresses? 255.0.0.0 (or /8) 255.255.0.0 (or /16) 255.255.255.0 (or /24) 255.255.255.255 (or /32) 45 / 65 What is the subnet ID for host 10.16.5.100/13? 10.16.0.0 10.32.0.0 10.64.0.0 10.128.0.0 46 / 65 Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for logical addressing and determining the best path for data to travel across different networks? Layer 2 (Data Link) Layer 3 (Network) Layer 4 (Transport) Layer 7 (Application) Explanation: The Network Layer (Layer 3) handles logical addressing (IP addresses) and routing. Routers operate at this layer to determine the best path for packets. Layer 2 handles physical addressing (MAC), Layer 4 handles end-to-end communication (TCP/UDP), and Layer 7 is where user applications interact with the network. 47 / 65 Which device makes forwarding decisions based on destination IP addresses? Layer 2 Switch Hub Router Access Point Explanation: A Router (or Layer 3 switch) operates at the Network Layer (OSI Layer 3) and uses logical IP addresses to determine the best path to a destination network. Layer 2 switches use MAC addresses. 48 / 65 Which type of security program uses simulated phishing emails to test and educate employees on identifying malicious links? Physical access control User awareness Brute force mitigation Social engineering attack 49 / 65 What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) PortFast feature? To speed up the convergence of the entire STP topology. To allow an access port to transition immediately to the forwarding state, bypassing listening and learning states. To protect the switch from receiving unauthorized BPDU messages. To increase the bandwidth of a link by bundling physical interfaces. Explanation: PortFast is used on ports connected to end devices (like PCs or printers). Normally, STP takes 30-50 seconds to move a port to "Forwarding." PortFast allows these ports to work instantly. It should never be used on trunk links between switches, as it could cause a loop. 50 / 65 In an SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) architecture, what is the role of the MIB (Management Information Base)? It is the software that runs on the Network Management Station (NMS). It is a structured database on the device that defines the variables the manager can query. It is the message sent by a device to alert the manager of an event. It is the authentication key used to encrypt SNMPv3 traffic. Explanation: The MIB is a hierarchical database used by the SNMP agent on a device (like a router) to organize information about the device's status (CPU, interface traffic, etc.). The SNMP Manager uses the MIB to know what data points it is allowed to read or change. 51 / 65 Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an interface? router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1 router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 GigabitEthernet0/1 router(config-router)#default-information originate router(config-router)#default-information originate always The correct command to set a static default route for all traffic to a specific interface is A. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1. Reasoning: 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0: This represents the "quad-zero" route, which matches any destination network and any subnet mask. This is the standard notation for a default route. GigabitEthernet0/1: This specifies the exit interface where the traffic should be sent. Why the others are incorrect: B: Using 255.255.255.255 as a mask would attempt to create a host route for a specific broadcast address, not a default route for all traffic. C & D: These are routing protocol configuration commands (used within OSPF or RIP). While they are used to propagate a default route to other routers in the network, they do not create the initial static default route on the local router itself. 52 / 65 When an interface is configured with PortFast BPDU guard, how does the interface respond when it receives a BPDU? It continues operating normally. It goes into a down/down state. It becomes the root bridge for the configured VLAN. It goes into an errdisable state. 53 / 65 Which type of Ethernet cable is most susceptible to Electromagnetic Interference (EMI)? UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) STP (Shielded Twisted Pair) Single-mode Fiber Multimode Fiber Explanation: UTP lacks the metal shielding found in STP, making it more vulnerable to external electrical noise (EMI) from machinery or fluorescent lights. Fiber (C and D) uses light, so it is immune to EMI. 54 / 65 Which of the following range is reserved for multicast groups? (128.0.0.0 – 191.255.255.255) (192.0.0.0 – 223.255.255.255) (224.0.0.0 – 239.255.255.255) (0.0.0.0 – 127.255.255.255) (240.0.0.0 – 255.255.255.255) Class A (0.0.0.0 – 127.255.255.255): Reserved for large organizations; 127.x.x.x is used for loopback/testing. Class B (128.0.0.0 – 191.255.255.255): Used for medium to large networks. Class C (192.0.0.0 – 223.255.255.255): Used for small networks. Class D (224.0.0.0 – 239.255.255.255): Reserved for multicast groups. Class E (240.0.0.0 – 255.255.255.255): Reserved for experimental/future use. Private IP Address Ranges (Non-Routable): Class A Private: 10.0.0.0 – 10.255.255.255. Class B Private: 172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255. Class C Private: 192.168.0.0 – 192.168.255.255. APIPA (Automatic Private IP): 169.254.0.0 – 169.254.255.255. 55 / 65 A REST API response returns a status code of "403". What does this indicate? OK / Success Created Forbidden / Unauthorized Not Found Explanation: HTTP Status Codes: 200: OK 201: Created 400: Bad Request 401: Unauthorized (Authentication missing) 403: Forbidden (Authenticated, but permissions denied) 404: Not Found 56 / 65 Which of the following is the most secure method for managing a Cisco router remotely over an untrusted network? Telnet HTTP SNMPv2c SSH (Secure Shell) Explanation: SSH encrypts the entire management session, including your username and password. Telnet and HTTP send data in "clear text," meaning anyone with a packet sniffer can see your login credentials. SNMPv2c also lacks the robust encryption and authentication found in SNMPv3 or SSH. 57 / 65 What is the primary function of a Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW) compared to a traditional stateful firewall? It only filters traffic based on port numbers. It uses deep packet inspection (DPI) to identify applications and threats within the payload. It operates exclusively at Layer 2. It cannot decrypt SSL/TLS traffic. Explanation: NGFWs go beyond simple port/protocol filtering. They include Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS), Deep Packet Inspection (DPI), and Application Visibility and Control (AVC) to see what the traffic actually is (e.g., blocking "Facebook Games" but allowing "Facebook Chat"). 58 / 65 Which IPv6 address type is automatically generated on every interface and is non-routable outside the local link? Global Unicast Unique Local Link-Local Anycast Explanation: Link-Local addresses (starting with FE80::/10) are mandatory on IPv6 interfaces. They are used for neighbor discovery and routing protocol communication strictly within the local segment. 59 / 65 What is the primary goal of "Intent-Based Networking" (IBN)? To manually configure every device using CLI scripts. To capture business intent and automatically translate it into network policies and configurations. To replace all routers with Layer 2 switches. To exclusively use open-source software for routing. Explanation: IBN focuses on the desired outcome (intent). The administrator defines what the network should do (e.g., "Give Voice traffic highest priority"), and the automated system figures out how to configure the devices to achieve that state and continuously verifies it. 60 / 65 Which protocol is used by a Cisco switch to automatically negotiate the formation of an EtherChannel using a "vendor-neutral" standard? PAgP (Port Aggregation Protocol) LACP (Link Aggregation Control Protocol) CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) LLDP (Link Layer Discovery Protocol) Explanation: LACP (802.3ad) is the industry-standard (IEEE) protocol for bundling physical links. PAgP is a Cisco-proprietary protocol that does the same thing but only works between Cisco devices. In a modern environment where you might mix vendors (Cisco, HP, Juniper), LACP is the preferred choice. 61 / 65 What is the purpose of "Inside Global" in NAT terminology? The private IP address of a host on the local network. The public IP address assigned by the ISP that represents the internal host to the outside world. The IP address of a web server located on the internet. The MAC address of the NAT router. Explanation: NAT terms are often confusing: Inside Local is the private IP (e.g., 192.168.1.5). Inside Global is the public IP that the rest of the internet sees when that host communicates. 62 / 65 What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three.) A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other network traffic. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use the same network infrastructure. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the same network infrastructure. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains, thus reducing their size. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by decreasing the number of broadcast domains, thus increasing their size. VLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups, because the VLANs all belong to the same broadcast domain. Port-based VLANs increase switch-port use efficiency, thanks to 802.1Q trunks. 63 / 65 What is the purpose of the "Underlay" in a fabric network? To provide IP connectivity between the physical switches and routers so tunnels can be built. To define user policies and access controls. To run the VXLAN encapsulation. To separate the control plane from the data plane. Explanation: The Underlay is the physical foundation. Its only job is to ensure that all network devices can reach each other (usually via an IGP like OSPF or IS-IS) so that the Overlay tunnels (VXLAN) can be established on top. 64 / 65 In the context of SDN (Software-Defined Networking), which "direction" does the Northbound API face? Between the SDN Controller and the physical switches (Data Plane). Between the SDN Controller and the applications or network management scripts. Between two different SDN Controllers in different data centers. Between the physical switch and the end-user device. Explanation: In SDN architecture: Northbound APIs allow applications and programmers to communicate with the controller to tell it what the network should do. Southbound APIs (like OpenFlow or NETCONF) are used by the controller to push those instructions down to the actual hardware switches. 65 / 65 What is the primary purpose of a "Native VLAN" on a Cisco switch trunk link? To encrypt all management traffic. To handle untagged traffic received on a trunk port. To act as a backup for the default VLAN 1. To provide a dedicated path for voice traffic only. Explanation: On an 802.1Q trunk, any frame that arrives without a VLAN tag is automatically assigned to the Native VLAN. For security, it is a best practice to change the native VLAN from the default (VLAN 1) to an unused VLAN ID. Your score is 0% Restart quiz
