0% 0 votes, 0 avg 8 123456789101112131415161718192021222324252627282930 This quiz randomly generates 30 questions as asked in Cisco CCNA (200-301) Congratulations! CCNA Certification Exam (200-301) This quiz randomly generates 30 questions (in 30 mins) as asked in Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) certification (200-301). The real 200-301 CCNA test has 100-120 questions and a total time of 120 minutes. This test randomly generates 30 questions from our question bank. For best results, practice multiple times until you achieve 100% accuracy. 1 / 30 Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for logical addressing and determining the best path for data to travel across different networks? Layer 2 (Data Link) Layer 3 (Network) Layer 4 (Transport) Layer 7 (Application) Explanation: The Network Layer (Layer 3) handles logical addressing (IP addresses) and routing. Routers operate at this layer to determine the best path for packets. Layer 2 handles physical addressing (MAC), Layer 4 handles end-to-end communication (TCP/UDP), and Layer 7 is where user applications interact with the network. 2 / 30 Which of the following is the default binary prefix used for IPv6 Link-Local addresses? 2000::/3 FC00::/7 FE80::/10 FF00::/8 3 / 30 What is the primary benefit of using EtherChannel in a switched network? It prevents loops without needing Spanning Tree Protocol. It allows multiple physical links to be treated as a single logical bundle for increased bandwidth and redundancy. It automatically assigns VLANs based on the device MAC address. It encrypts all traffic between two switches at Layer 2. It allows multiple physical links to be treated as a single logical bundle 4 / 30 In a SDN (Software Defined Networking) architecture, which plane is responsible for making global decisions about how traffic should be forwarded? Data Plane Management Plane Control Plane Forwarding Plane Control Plane (The control plane resides in the SDN controller and directs the underlying data plane devices) 5 / 30 Which configuration management tool is "agentless" and uses SSH to communicate with managed network devices? Puppet Chef Ansible Terraform Explanation: Ansible is considered "agentless" because it does not require special software installed on the target device; it typically uses standard SSH to push configurations. Puppet and Chef generally require an "agent" (client software) to be running on the managed device. 6 / 30 What is the "Administrative Distance" (AD) of a Floating Static Route, and why is it used? It has an AD of 1 to ensure it is always the preferred path. It has an AD higher than the primary routing protocol (e.g., 120) to act as a backup. It has an AD of 0 to represent a directly connected interface. It has an AD of 5 to prioritize it over EIGRP. Explanation: A Floating Static Route is a backup route. By manually setting its AD to a value higher than the main protocol (like OSPF's 110), the router ignores the static route unless the main protocol’s path fails. When the main route disappears, the static route "floats" into the routing table. 7 / 30 Which switch will become the root bridge of a Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) instance? The switch with the highest Bridge ID (BID) The switch with the lowest Priority value The switch with the highest MAC address The switch with the most active ports B. The switch with the lowest Priority value (lower BID wins; priority is the first component of BID) 8 / 30 Which service is responsible for translating human-readable domain names (like www.cisco.com) into IP addresses? DHCP SNMP DNS NAT Explanation: DNS (Domain Name System) resolves domain names into IP addresses so users don't have to remember numeric addresses. DHCP assigns IP addresses to devices, and NAT translates private IPs to public IPs. 9 / 30 When using a REST API, which HTTP method is typically used to update or modify an existing resource on a server? GET POST PUT DELETE Explanation: In RESTful services: GET retrieves data. POST creates a new resource. PUT (or PATCH) updates/replaces an existing resource. DELETE removes a resource. 10 / 30 What does a router do if it receives a packet for a destination network that is not in its routing table and no "Gateway of Last Resort" is configured? It broadcasts the packet to all interfaces. It sends the packet to the nearest neighbor router. It drops the packet and sends an ICMP "Destination Unreachable" message to the source. It holds the packet in a buffer until a route is learned. Explanation: A router will only forward a packet if it has a specific route or a default route (Gateway of Last Resort). If it lacks both, it has no choice but to discard the packet and notify the sender via ICMP. 11 / 30 Which of the following are commonly used encoding methods for data in REST APIs? (Choose two) XML YAML JSON HTML SNMP 12 / 30 Which IPv6 address type communication is restricted to a single local segment and is not routable? Global unicast Unique local Link-local Multicast 13 / 30 Which type of security program uses simulated phishing emails to test and educate employees on identifying malicious links? Physical access control User awareness Brute force mitigation Social engineering attack 14 / 30 An administrator needs to connect an Autonomous Access Point (AP) that provides three different SSIDs, each mapped to a different VLAN. Which port type should be used on the switch to connect the AP? Access port Routed port Trunk port Virtual interface An access port can only carry traffic for a single VLAN. To support an AP handling multiple SSIDs (and thus multiple VLANs), a trunk port is required because it uses 802.1Q tagging to carry traffic for multiple VLANs over a single physical link. 15 / 30 Which command is used to configure a router to obtain its IP address automatically from a DHCP server? ip dhcp client ip helper-address ip address dhcp ip dhcp pool C. ip address dhcp 16 / 30 Which command is used to configure a Cisco router to synchronize its internal clock with an external time source at IP address 209.165.200.225? ntp peer 209.165.200.225 clock set 209.165.200.225 ntp server 209.165.200.225 snmp-server host 209.165.200.225 17 / 30 In an SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) architecture, what is the role of the MIB (Management Information Base)? It is the software that runs on the Network Management Station (NMS). It is a structured database on the device that defines the variables the manager can query. It is the message sent by a device to alert the manager of an event. It is the authentication key used to encrypt SNMPv3 traffic. Explanation: The MIB is a hierarchical database used by the SNMP agent on a device (like a router) to organize information about the device's status (CPU, interface traffic, etc.). The SNMP Manager uses the MIB to know what data points it is allowed to read or change. 18 / 30 In a Wireless LAN, what is the role of a Wireless LAN Controller (WLC) in a "Split-MAC" architecture? It handles real-time MAC operations like beaconing and frame acknowledgment. It stores the data traffic locally so it doesn't have to travel to the wired network. It manages centralized tasks like security, roaming, and radio resource management. It provides power to the Access Points via Ethernet cables. Explanation: In a Split-MAC architecture (used with Lightweight APs), the Access Point handles "real-time" tasks (like frame encryption/acknowledgment), while the WLC handles "management" tasks (like authentication and coordination across multiple APs). The AP and WLC communicate via the CAPWAP protocol. 19 / 30 Which security concept refers to the practice of ensuring that a user or system is only granted the minimum level of access necessary to perform their job? Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) Principle of Least Privilege Defense in Depth Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) Explanation: The Principle of Least Privilege is a fundamental security rule aimed at reducing the "attack surface." By limiting a user's permissions to only what is required, you minimize the damage that could occur if that account is compromised. 20 / 30 Which of the following describes the function of a Collision Domain in a network connected by a modern Layer 2 switch? Each individual port on the switch represents its own collision domain. All ports on the switch belong to a single, large collision domain. Collision domains only exist if a router is used to separate them. A switch uses CSMA/CD to manage collisions across all ports simultaneously. Explanation: Switches operate in Full-Duplex mode, meaning they can send and receive data at the same time. Unlike a hub (which is one large collision domain), a switch creates a dedicated segment for each port, effectively eliminating collisions between devices on different ports. 21 / 30 What is the primary purpose of a "Dynamic NAT" (Network Address Translation) configuration? To map one internal private IP address to one specific public IP address permanently. To map a group of internal private IP addresses to a pool of available public IP addresses. To allow multiple internal users to share a single public IP address using port numbers. To provide a secure VPN tunnel between two branch offices. Explanation: Dynamic NAT uses a pool of public addresses and assigns them on a first-come, first-served basis. Option A describes Static NAT, and Option C describes PAT (Port Address Translation), also known as "NAT Overload." 22 / 30 What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) PortFast feature? To speed up the convergence of the entire STP topology. To allow an access port to transition immediately to the forwarding state, bypassing listening and learning states. To protect the switch from receiving unauthorized BPDU messages. To increase the bandwidth of a link by bundling physical interfaces. Explanation: PortFast is used on ports connected to end devices (like PCs or printers). Normally, STP takes 30-50 seconds to move a port to "Forwarding." PortFast allows these ports to work instantly. It should never be used on trunk links between switches, as it could cause a loop. 23 / 30 How does an OSPF router determine which path to a destination is "best" when multiple paths exist? It chooses the path with the lowest hop count. It calculates the cumulative "cost" based on interface bandwidth. It uses the path with the highest Administrative Distance. It selects the path with the lowest CPU utilization. Unlike RIP, which uses hop count, OSPF uses cost as its metric. Cost is calculated based on the reference bandwidth divided by the interface speed; lower cost indicates a faster, preferred path. 24 / 30 When viewing a JSON data object, what do square brackets [ ] represent? A single key-value pair. An unordered list of objects. An ordered array or list of values. The beginning and end of the entire JSON file. Explanation: In JSON (JavaScript Object Notation), curly braces { } define an object (a collection of key-value pairs), while square brackets [ ] define an array (a list of multiple values or objects). For example, "interfaces": ["Gig0/0", "Gig0/1"] is an array of strings. 25 / 30 If a router learns a path to the same network from both OSPF and EIGRP, which route will be installed in the routing table by default? The OSPF route because it has a lower administrative distance. The EIGRP route because it has a lower administrative distance. Both routes for load balancing. The route with the highest bandwidth. B. The EIGRP route (EIGRP AD is 90; OSPF AD is 110) 26 / 30 In a routing table, which parameter is used first to determine the best path for a packet? Lowest Administrative Distance Lowest Metric Longest Prefix Match Next-hop IP address Longest Prefix Match (The router first looks for the most specific route; if multiple exist with the same prefix length, it then compares Administrative Distance) 27 / 30 Which command on a Cisco router blocks login attempts for 30 seconds if there are 2 failed attempts within a 10-second window? login block-for 10 attempts 2 within 30 login block-for 30 attempts 2 within 10 security passwords min-length 10 access-list 10 deny any 28 / 30 Which component of AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) is responsible for tracking what a user does and what resources they access during a session? Authentication Authorization Accounting Auditing Explanation: Accounting collects data on how long a user was logged in, what commands they ran, and how much data they transferred. Authentication verifies who the user is, and Authorization determines what they are allowed to do. 29 / 30 What is the primary purpose of a "Native VLAN" on a Cisco switch trunk link? To encrypt all management traffic. To handle untagged traffic received on a trunk port. To act as a backup for the default VLAN 1. To provide a dedicated path for voice traffic only. Explanation: On an 802.1Q trunk, any frame that arrives without a VLAN tag is automatically assigned to the Native VLAN. For security, it is a best practice to change the native VLAN from the default (VLAN 1) to an unused VLAN ID. 30 / 30 Which IPv6 address type is used to send a single packet to multiple destinations simultaneously? Unicast Anycast Multicast Broadcast IPv6 does not use broadcast addresses. Instead, it uses Multicast to send traffic to a specific group of nodes simultaneously. Anycast sends a packet to the nearest single member of a group, and Unicast is for one-to-one communication. 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