0% 0 votes, 0 avg 11 1234567891011121314151617181920212223242526272829303132333435363738394041424344454647484950515253545556575859606162636465 This quiz randomly generates 60 questions as asked in Cisco CCNA (200-301) Congratulations! CCNA Certification Exam (200-301) This quiz randomly generates 60 questions (in 60 mins) as asked in Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) certification (200-301). The real 200-301 CCNA test has 100-120 questions and a total time of 120 minutes. This test randomly generates 60 questions from our question bank. For best results, practice multiple times until you achieve 100% accuracy. 1 / 65 In a Wireless LAN, what is the role of a Wireless LAN Controller (WLC) in a "Split-MAC" architecture? It handles real-time MAC operations like beaconing and frame acknowledgment. It stores the data traffic locally so it doesn't have to travel to the wired network. It manages centralized tasks like security, roaming, and radio resource management. It provides power to the Access Points via Ethernet cables. Explanation: In a Split-MAC architecture (used with Lightweight APs), the Access Point handles "real-time" tasks (like frame encryption/acknowledgment), while the WLC handles "management" tasks (like authentication and coordination across multiple APs). The AP and WLC communicate via the CAPWAP protocol. 2 / 65 An OSPF router is connected to a network with a broadcast multi-access medium (like Ethernet). Which two OSPF states indicate that the adjacency is fully formed and routing information has been synchronized? (Choose two) 2-WAY FULL EXSTART LOADING ATTEMPT Explanation: On a broadcast network, routers reach a FULL state with the Designated Router (DR) and Backup Designated Router (BDR). Between two "DROTHER" routers (routers that are neither DR nor BDR), the relationship stays in the 2-WAY state. This is normal behavior to reduce the amount of OSPF traffic on the wire. 3 / 65 In the context of Puppet, what is the term for the file that defines the desired state of a resource? Playbook Manifest Recipe Blueprint Explanation: Terminology mapping: Ansible: Playbook Puppet: Manifest (.pp file) Chef: Recipe (grouped into Cookbooks) 4 / 65 Which of the following describes the difference between a Hub and a Bridge? A Hub operates at Layer 3, while a Bridge operates at Layer 2. A Hub is a single collision domain, while a Bridge separates collision domains. A Bridge is used for long-distance fiber, while a Hub is for local copper. A Hub uses MAC addresses to forward data, while a Bridge uses IP addresses. Explanation: A Hub is a "dumb" Layer 1 device that broadcasts all incoming traffic out of every port, meaning all devices share one collision domain. A Bridge (the predecessor to the modern switch) operates at Layer 2 and uses a MAC address table to segment the network into multiple collision domains, reducing congestion. 5 / 65 Which feature can you implement to reserve bandwidth for VoIP calls across the call path? PQ CBWFQ round robin RSVP RSVP (Resource Reservation Protocol): This is the only feature listed that operates across the entire call path. It is a signaling protocol used by host applications to request specific qualities of service (like guaranteed bandwidth) from the network. Each router along the path evaluates the request and reserves the necessary resources before the call begins to ensure end-to-end quality. 6 / 65 What is the purpose of "Inside Global" in NAT terminology? The private IP address of a host on the local network. The public IP address assigned by the ISP that represents the internal host to the outside world. The IP address of a web server located on the internet. The MAC address of the NAT router. Explanation: NAT terms are often confusing: Inside Local is the private IP (e.g., 192.168.1.5). Inside Global is the public IP that the rest of the internet sees when that host communicates. 7 / 65 Which two spanning-tree port states does RSTP combine to allow faster convergence? (Choose two.) blocking listening learning forwarding discarding The two Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) port states that Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) combines into the single discarding state for faster convergence are A and B. A. blocking B. listening Explanation RSTP has only three port states: discarding, learning, and forwarding. The STP states of blocking and listening (along with disabled) are all merged into the single discarding state because, operationally, they both drop frames and do not learn MAC addresses. The faster convergence in RSTP is achieved through a handshake (proposal/agreement) mechanism that allows ports to bypass the listening and learning delay timers and transition almost immediately to the forwarding state when safe. Why other options are incorrect C. learning and D. forwarding are distinct states in both STP and RSTP, where frames are processed differently (MAC addresses learned in both, but only forwarded in the latter). E. discarding is the new RSTP state that the other states are merged into, not a state that is combined with another to achieve convergence. 8 / 65 What is the primary goal of "Intent-Based Networking" (IBN)? To manually configure every device using CLI scripts. To capture business intent and automatically translate it into network policies and configurations. To replace all routers with Layer 2 switches. To exclusively use open-source software for routing. Explanation: IBN focuses on the desired outcome (intent). The administrator defines what the network should do (e.g., "Give Voice traffic highest priority"), and the automated system figures out how to configure the devices to achieve that state and continuously verifies it. 9 / 65 Which of the following is the default binary prefix used for IPv6 Link-Local addresses? 2000::/3 FC00::/7 FE80::/10 FF00::/8 10 / 65 Which of the following range is reserved for experimental/future use? (128.0.0.0 – 191.255.255.255) (192.0.0.0 – 223.255.255.255) (224.0.0.0 – 239.255.255.255) (0.0.0.0 – 127.255.255.255) (240.0.0.0 – 255.255.255.255) Class A (0.0.0.0 – 127.255.255.255): Reserved for large organizations; 127.x.x.x is used for loopback/testing. Class B (128.0.0.0 – 191.255.255.255): Used for medium to large networks. Class C (192.0.0.0 – 223.255.255.255): Used for small networks. Class D (224.0.0.0 – 239.255.255.255): Reserved for multicast groups. Class E (240.0.0.0 – 255.255.255.255): Reserved for experimental/future use. Private IP Address Ranges (Non-Routable): Class A Private: 10.0.0.0 – 10.255.255.255. Class B Private: 172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255. Class C Private: 192.168.0.0 – 192.168.255.255. APIPA (Automatic Private IP): 169.254.0.0 – 169.254.255.255. 11 / 65 Which of the following is the most secure method for managing a Cisco router remotely over an untrusted network? Telnet HTTP SNMPv2c SSH (Secure Shell) Explanation: SSH encrypts the entire management session, including your username and password. Telnet and HTTP send data in "clear text," meaning anyone with a packet sniffer can see your login credentials. SNMPv2c also lacks the robust encryption and authentication found in SNMPv3 or SSH. 12 / 65 What is the primary purpose of the "Next Header" field in an IPv6 header? It specifies the IP address of the next router. It acts as a hop counter to prevent loops. It identifies the type of information following the IPv6 header (such as TCP, UDP, or an Extension Header). It determines the priority of the packet for QoS. Explanation: In IPv6, the Next Header field (8 bits) replaces the "Protocol" field from IPv4. It indicates what follows the main header. This could be a transport layer protocol (TCP=6, UDP=17) or an Extension Header that provides additional options like fragmentation or security. 13 / 65 What is the function of a Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) on a switch? It limits the number of MAC addresses allowed on a single port. It validates ARP packets in a network by comparing them against the DHCP Snooping binding database. It encrypts ARP messages to prevent them from being read by sniffers. It automatically assigns VLANs to devices based on their ARP requests. Explanation: DAI is a security feature that prevents ARP spoofing/poisoning attacks. It intercepts ARP requests and responses on "untrusted" ports and checks if the MAC-to-IP binding is legitimate based on a trusted database (created by DHCP Snooping). If the binding doesn't match, the ARP packet is dropped. 14 / 65 What is the default Administrative Distance (AD) of an OSPF route? 1 90 110 120 Explanation: AD is the "trustworthiness" of a route. Lower is better. OSPF is 110. For comparison: Connected is 0, Static is 1, EIGRP is 90, and RIP is 120. 15 / 65 Which configuration management tool is "agentless" and uses SSH to communicate with managed network devices? Puppet Chef Ansible Terraform Explanation: Ansible is considered "agentless" because it does not require special software installed on the target device; it typically uses standard SSH to push configurations. Puppet and Chef generally require an "agent" (client software) to be running on the managed device. 16 / 65 A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem? The OSPF area is not configured properly. The priority on R1 should be set higher. The cost on R1 should be set higher. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network. The OSPF process ID numbers must match. 17 / 65 Refer to the exhibit. A technician has installed SwitchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the management workstation connected to SwitchA. Which set of commands is required to accomplish this task? SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1 SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1 SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown SwitchB(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1 SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown SwitchB(config)# ip route 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1 SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown 18 / 65 What is the primary purpose of VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) in a switched network? To dynamically assign users to VLANs based on their MAC addresses. To synchronize VLAN information (addition, deletion, renaming) across all switches in a domain. To prevent loops in the network by blocking redundant paths. To provide routing between different VLANs. Explanation: VTP allows a network administrator to make VLAN changes on a single "Server" switch and have those changes automatically propagate to all other "Client" switches in the same VTP domain. This reduces configuration errors and administrative overhead. 19 / 65 Which IPv6 address type is automatically generated on every interface and is non-routable outside the local link? Global Unicast Unique Local Link-Local Anycast Explanation: Link-Local addresses (starting with FE80::/10) are mandatory on IPv6 interfaces. They are used for neighbor discovery and routing protocol communication strictly within the local segment. 20 / 65 What is the Default Subnet Masks for Class A IPv4 addresses? 255.0.0.0 (or /8) 255.255.0.0 (or /16) 255.255.255.0 (or /24) 255.255.255.255 (or /32) 21 / 65 What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.) exactly one active router one or more standby routers one or more backup virtual routers exactly one standby active router exactly one backup virtual router The correct two requirements for an HSRP (Hot Standby Router Protocol) group are: A. exactly one active router B. one or more standby routerReasoning Active Router: In an HSRP group, only one router can be in the "Active" state at any given time to handle all data traffic directed to the virtual IP address. Standby Routers: An HSRP group is formed by two or more routers to provide redundancy. While one router is designated as the primary "Standby" to monitor the Active router, the group as a whole must have at least one (and can have many) routers configured to fill this role. Why others are incorrect: C & E: These options refer to "backup virtual routers," which is terminology used in VRRP (Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol), not HSRP. D: "Exactly one standby active router" is contradictory and incorrect terminology for HSRP roles. 22 / 65 What determines the "Network Address" of an IPv4 subnet? Setting all host bits to 1. Setting all host bits to 0. Setting the first octet to 255. Using the highest IP in the range. Explanation: The Network ID is found by setting all host bits to 0. Setting all host bits to 1 gives the Broadcast address. 23 / 65 If primary and secondary root switches with priority 16384 both experience catastrophic losses, which tertiary switch can take over? a switch with priority 20480 a switch with priority 8192 a switch with priority 4096 a switch with priority 12288 In Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), the switch with the lowest priority value is elected as the Root Bridge. If the existing primary and secondary switches (both with priority 16384) fail, the network will elect the switch with the next lowest priority available. Since 16384 was the previous "best" priority, the tertiary switch must have a priority value higher than 16384 to have been passed over originally, but it must be the lowest remaining value among the surviving switches to take over. The correct answer is A. a switch with priority 20480. Reasoning: A (20480): This is the lowest value provided that is greater than 16384. This switch would have been the tertiary choice. B, C, and D (8192, 4096, 12288): All of these values are lower than 16384. If any of these switches existed in the network, one of them would have been the Primary Root Bridge from the start, rather than the switches with priority 16384. 24 / 65 What does a router do if it receives a packet for a destination network that is not in its routing table and no "Gateway of Last Resort" is configured? It broadcasts the packet to all interfaces. It sends the packet to the nearest neighbor router. It drops the packet and sends an ICMP "Destination Unreachable" message to the source. It holds the packet in a buffer until a route is learned. Explanation: A router will only forward a packet if it has a specific route or a default route (Gateway of Last Resort). If it lacks both, it has no choice but to discard the packet and notify the sender via ICMP. 25 / 65 A Cisco router is booting and has just completed the POST process. It is now ready to find and load an IOS image. What function does the router perform next? It checks the configuration register. It attempts to boot from a TFTP server. It loads the first image file in flash memory. It inspects the configuration file in NVRAM for boot instructions. 26 / 65 Which device makes forwarding decisions based on destination IP addresses? Layer 2 Switch Hub Router Access Point Explanation: A Router (or Layer 3 switch) operates at the Network Layer (OSI Layer 3) and uses logical IP addresses to determine the best path to a destination network. Layer 2 switches use MAC addresses. 27 / 65 Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router? ipv6 local ipv6 host ipv6 unicast-routing ipv6 neighbor The correct command to enable IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router is C. ipv6 unicast-routing. Explanation: By default, Cisco routers have IPv4 routing enabled, but IPv6 routing is disabled. Even if you assign IPv6 addresses to interfaces, the router will only act as an IPv6 host (it can ping its own addresses or those on the same subnet) but will not forward packets between interfaces until this command is entered in global configuration mode. Why the others are incorrect: A. ipv6 local: This is used for configuring local IPv6 policy-based routing or attributes, not for enabling general forwarding. B. ipv6 host: This is used to define static host name-to-address mappings (similar to a local "hosts" file). D. ipv6 neighbor: This command is used to manually configure static entries in the IPv6 neighbor discovery (ND) cache, similar to static ARP in IPv4. 28 / 65 What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco switch? Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that address are received. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that address are received. 29 / 65 Which service is responsible for translating human-readable domain names (like www.cisco.com) into IP addresses? DHCP SNMP DNS NAT Explanation: DNS (Domain Name System) resolves domain names into IP addresses so users don't have to remember numeric addresses. DHCP assigns IP addresses to devices, and NAT translates private IPs to public IPs. 30 / 65 Which fiber connector type is "Push-Pull" and typically used for high-density patching? ST (Straight Tip) SC (Subscriber Connector) LC (Lucent Connector) FC (Ferrule Connector) Explanation: The LC connector is a small form-factor connector (half the size of SC) that uses a locking tab similar to an RJ-45. Its small size makes it ideal for high-density switches. 31 / 65 Which of the following describes "Intent-Based Networking" (IBN)? A network where users must state their intent before logging in. A manual process of configuring each router via the Command Line Interface (CLI). A system that uses business objectives (intent) to automatically configure and manage network policies. A network that only uses open-source software. Explanation: IBN is a revolutionary shift where the administrator defines the outcome (e.g., "Guest WiFi should not access the Finance Server"), and the SDN controller (like Cisco DNA Center) automatically translates that intent into specific configurations across all network devices. 32 / 65 Which of the following addresses is a valid IPv4 Private Address according to RFC 1918? 172.32.1.1 192.169.0.1 10.255.1.1 11.0.0.1 Explanation: The RFC 1918 private ranges are: 10.0.0.0 – 10.255.255.255 172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255 192.168.0.0 – 192.168.255.255Option A (172.32.x.x) and D (11.x.x.x) are Public. Option C is valid Private. 33 / 65 In OSPF, what is the significance of the "Router ID"? it is the IP address of the default gateway. It is a unique 32-bit number used to identify the router within an OSPF area. It determines the bandwidth of the interfaces. It is used to encrypt the OSPF hello packets. Explanation: Every OSPF router must have a unique Router ID (RID). It is chosen in this order: (1) Manually configured router-id, (2) Highest IP on a Loopback interface, (3) Highest IP on an active physical interface. 34 / 65 When an interface is configured with PortFast BPDU guard, how does the interface respond when it receives a BPDU? It continues operating normally. It goes into a down/down state. It becomes the root bridge for the configured VLAN. It goes into an errdisable state. 35 / 65 When viewing a JSON data object, what do square brackets [ ] represent? A single key-value pair. An unordered list of objects. An ordered array or list of values. The beginning and end of the entire JSON file. Explanation: In JSON (JavaScript Object Notation), curly braces { } define an object (a collection of key-value pairs), while square brackets [ ] define an array (a list of multiple values or objects). For example, "interfaces": ["Gig0/0", "Gig0/1"] is an array of strings. 36 / 65 Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a given Cisco switch interface? (Choose two.) show interface trunk show interface interface show ip interface brief show interface vlan show interface switchport 37 / 65 What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP? Addresses in a private range will be not be routed on the Internet backbone. Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network. The NAT process will be used to translate this address to a valid IP address. A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range. 38 / 65 Which two statements about IPv6 and routing protocols are true? (Choose two.) Link-local addresses are used to form routing adjacencies. OSPFv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing. EIGRP, OSPF, and BGP are the only routing protocols that support IPv6. Loopback addresses are used to form routing adjacencies. EIGRPv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing. The two true statements about IPv6 and routing protocols are A and B. A. Link-local addresses are used to form routing adjacencies. B. OSPFv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing. Explanation Link-local addresses: In IPv6, routing protocols like OSPFv3 and EIGRP use the link-local addresses (which start with FE80::/10) of neighboring routers as the next-hop address for dynamic routes and to establish adjacencies. Link-local addresses are unique to a specific network segment and are not forwarded by routers. OSPFv3: OSPF version 3 was specifically developed to support IPv6 addressing and prefixes, building upon the OSPFv2 (IPv4) framework. 39 / 65 Which field in the TCP header allows the receiving device to reassemble segments in the correct order? Window Size Sequence Number Acknowledgment Number Checksum Explanation: The Sequence Number uniquely identifies the data bytes in each segment, allowing the receiver to reorder packets that arrived out of sequence. 40 / 65 Which type of Ethernet cable is most susceptible to Electromagnetic Interference (EMI)? UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) STP (Shielded Twisted Pair) Single-mode Fiber Multimode Fiber Explanation: UTP lacks the metal shielding found in STP, making it more vulnerable to external electrical noise (EMI) from machinery or fluorescent lights. Fiber (C and D) uses light, so it is immune to EMI. 41 / 65 Which command sequence can you enter to create VLAN 20 and assign it to an interface on a switch? Switch(config)#vlan 20Switch(config)#Interface gig x/ySwitch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20 Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y Switch(config-if)#vlan 20 Switch(config-vlan)#switchport access vlan 20 Switch(config)#vlan 20 Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20 Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 20 Switch(config)#vlan 20 Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20 Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20 Switch(config)#vlan 20 Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20 Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 20 The correct command sequence to create VLAN 20 and assign it to an interface is: A. Switch(config)#vlan 20 Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20 Reasoning Step 1: vlan 20 – This command enters VLAN configuration mode and creates the VLAN in the switch's database. Step 2: interface gig x/y – This enters the configuration mode for the specific physical interface. Step 3: switchport access vlan 20 – This command assigns the interface to VLAN 20. On most modern Cisco switches, this command also implicitly sets the port to access mode if not already configured, though it is best practice to precede it with switchport mode access. Why the others are incorrect: B: You cannot create a VLAN by typing the vlan command while inside a physical interface's configuration mode (config-if). C, D, and E: These options use interface vlan 20, which creates a VLAN Interface (a Layer 3 Switch Virtual Interface or SVI). This is used for routing and management, not for assigning a physical switch port to a VLAN. Furthermore, switchport commands are Layer 2 commands and cannot be applied to an SVI. 42 / 65 What is the summary route (supernet) for 192.168.0.0/24, 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24? 192.168.0.0/128 192.168.0.0/64 192.168.0.0/32 192.168.0.0/22 Explanation: These four networks share the first 22 bits. 43 / 65 How many usable host addresses are available in a /30 subnet? 1 2 4 6 44 / 65 Which two statements about late collisions are true? (Choose two.) They may indicate a duplex mismatch. By definition, they occur after the 512th bit of the frame has been transmitted. They indicate received frames that did not pass the FCS match. They are frames that exceed 1518 bytes. They occur when CRC errors and interference occur on the cable. The two true statements about late collisions are A and B. A. They may indicate a duplex mismatch. A common cause of late collisions in modern networks is a duplex mismatch between two connected devices (e.g., one set to full-duplex and the other to half-duplex). B. By definition, they occur after the 512th bit of the frame has been transmitted. This is the technical definition; if a collision occurs after the initial "collision window" (the first 64 bytes or 512 bits of the frame) has passed, it is classified as a late collision. Why other options are incorrect C. They indicate received frames that did not pass the FCS match. While a late collision may result in an FCS error on the receiving end, the late collision itself is a different counter/symptom. D. They are frames that exceed 1518 bytes. Frames that exceed the maximum legal Ethernet frame size (typically 1518 bytes) are called "giant" frames, which is a different issue. E. They occur when CRC errors and interference occur on the cable. CRC errors can be a symptom of the data corruption caused by collisions, but late collisions are a specific type of error related to timing/duplex, not just general interference. 45 / 65 Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly connected Cisco devices? enable cdp cdp enable cdp run run cdp 46 / 65 A REST API response returns a status code of "403". What does this indicate? OK / Success Created Forbidden / Unauthorized Not Found Explanation: HTTP Status Codes: 200: OK 201: Created 400: Bad Request 401: Unauthorized (Authentication missing) 403: Forbidden (Authenticated, but permissions denied) 404: Not Found 47 / 65 Which Cisco command displays the status of all interfaces, including their IP address and Layer 1/Layer 2 status? show ip route show interfaces show ip interface brief show version Explanation: show ip interface brief is the most efficient command to get a quick summary of Interface Name, IP Address, Status (Layer 1), and Protocol (Layer 2). 48 / 65 Which of the following are commonly used encoding methods for data in REST APIs? (Choose two) XML YAML JSON HTML SNMP 49 / 65 Which command is used to configure a router to obtain its IP address automatically from a DHCP server? ip dhcp client ip helper-address ip address dhcp ip dhcp pool C. ip address dhcp 50 / 65 An administrator needs to connect an Autonomous Access Point (AP) that provides three different SSIDs, each mapped to a different VLAN. Which port type should be used on the switch to connect the AP? Access port Routed port Trunk port Virtual interface An access port can only carry traffic for a single VLAN. To support an AP handling multiple SSIDs (and thus multiple VLANs), a trunk port is required because it uses 802.1Q tagging to carry traffic for multiple VLANs over a single physical link. 51 / 65 In a virtualized environment, what function does a "vSwitch" perform? It routes traffic between different physical data centers. It connects virtual machines (VMs) to each other and to the physical network interface. It acts as a firewall for the physical router. It encrypts hard drive data. Explanation: A virtual switch (vSwitch) is software that mimics a physical switch. It allows VMs on the same host to communicate and bridges them to the physical NIC (pNIC) to reach the outside world. 52 / 65 If a router learns a path to the same network from both OSPF and EIGRP, which route will be installed in the routing table by default? The OSPF route because it has a lower administrative distance. The EIGRP route because it has a lower administrative distance. Both routes for load balancing. The route with the highest bandwidth. B. The EIGRP route (EIGRP AD is 90; OSPF AD is 110) 53 / 65 Which IPv6 address type communication is restricted to a single local segment and is not routable? Global unicast Unique local Link-local Multicast 54 / 65 What is the Class A Private addresses range? 10.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.0 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255 240.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.255 55 / 65 Which plane of operation is centralized in a Software-Defined Networking (SDN) architecture to improve network management and policy enforcement? Data Plane Control Plane Management Plane Forwarding Plane Explanation: In SDN, the Control Plane (the brain that decides where traffic goes) is decoupled from the hardware and moved to a centralized controller. The hardware devices (switches/routers) retain the Data/Forwarding Plane to move packets based on instructions from the controller. 56 / 65 Which Quality of Service (QoS) mechanism is used to drop "excess" traffic to maintain a specific configured bit rate? Classification Marking Queuing Policing Explanation: Policing manages bandwidth by dropping or re-marking traffic that exceeds a defined rate. This is different from Shaping, which buffers (delays) the excess traffic in a queue rather than dropping it immediately. Policing is typically used by ISPs at the entry point of their network. 57 / 65 If a router has four interfaces and each interface is connected to four switches, how many broadcast domains are present on the router? 1 2 4 6 The correct number of broadcast domains present on the router is C. 4. Explanation A router inherently separates broadcast domains; each of its interfaces belongs to a different network segment. Each interface connected to a switch effectively creates a separate Layer 2 segment (broadcast domain) which that specific router interface terminates. Since the router has four distinct interfaces, there are four separate broadcast domains, one for each interface connection. 58 / 65 Convert the CIDR /19 to dotted-decimal. 255.255.224.0 255.255.128.0 255.255.64.0 255.255.32.0 Explanation: 8 bits + 8 bits + 3 bits (128+64+32=224). 59 / 65 Which field in the IPv4 header is used to prevent a packet from looping indefinitely on a network? Protocol Type of Service (ToS) Time to Live (TTL) Header Checksum Explanation: The TTL field is an 8-bit value that acts as a hop counter. Every time a router processes a packet, it decrements the TTL value by 1. If the TTL reaches zero, the router discards the packet and usually sends an ICMP "Time Exceeded" message back to the sender. This prevents "lost" packets from circling the network forever. 60 / 65 Which of the following best describes an "Overlay Network"? The physical infrastructure of routers, switches, and cables. A virtual topology created via tunnels (like VXLAN or IPsec) that runs on top of the physical infrastructure. A network dedicated solely to management traffic. The connection between the Spine and Leaf switches. Explanation: An Overlay Network is a logical topology built using tunnels (e.g., CAPWAP, VXLAN, GRE) that rides on top of the physical "Underlay" network. It allows for flexible connections between devices regardless of physical location. 61 / 65 What is the first octet range for a Class D address, and what is its purpose? 0–32; used for Unicast 224–239; used for Multicast 0–256; used for Unicast 32–64; used for Multicast Explanation: Class D is not used for individual hosts but for sending one packet to a group of subscribed hosts. 62 / 65 Which IP address range is reserved for Class A private internal use? 10.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.0 0.0.0.0 to 0.0.0.0 10.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.255 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 Per RFC 1918, this range is for private use and is not routable on the public internet. 63 / 65 What is the Class C Private addresses range? 10.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.0 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255 240.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.255 64 / 65 Refer to the exhibit. The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950 Switch. 2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security 2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky 2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1 The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1. What two functions will occur when this frame is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two.) The MAC address table will now have an additional entry of fa0/1 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF. Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1. This frame will be discarded when it is received by 2950Switch. All frames arriving on 2950Switch with a destination of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out fa0/1. Hosts B and C may forward frames out fa0/1 but frames arriving from other switches will not be forwarded out fa0/1. Only frames from source 0000.00bb.bbbb, the first learned MAC address of 2950Switch, will be forwarded out fa0/1. 65 / 65 Which of the following is a valid JSON key-value pair? 'interface': 'GigabitEthernet1' "interface" = "GigabitEthernet1" "interface": "GigabitEthernet1" <interface>GigabitEthernet1</interface> Explanation: Valid JSON requires double quotes around keys and string values, and a colon separating them. Option A uses single quotes (invalid in standard JSON). Option B uses an equals sign. Option D is XML. Your score is 0% Restart quiz
