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This quiz randomly generates 60 questions as asked in Cisco CCNA (200-301)

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cisco CCNA (200-301)

CCNA Certification Exam (200-301)

This quiz randomly generates 60 questions (in 60 mins) as asked in Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) certification (200-301). The real 200-301 CCNA test has 100-120 questions and a total time of 120 minutes. This test randomly generates 60 questions from our question bank. For best results, practice multiple times until you achieve 100% accuracy.

1 / 65

Which type of Ethernet cable is most susceptible to Electromagnetic Interference (EMI)?

2 / 65

Which IEEE standard defines the 802.1Q encapsulation used for VLAN Trunking?

3 / 65

Is the address 10.1.5.63/26 a host address, a network ID, or a broadcast address?

4 / 65

What is the Default Subnet Masks for Class C IPv4 addresses?

5 / 65

Refer to the exhibit. The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true?
(Choose three.)

6 / 65

Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has built-
in security mechanisms?

7 / 65

Which of the following describes the function of First Hop Redundancy Protocols (FHRP) like HSRP or GLBP?

8 / 65

When using a REST API, what is the function of the "URI" (Uniform Resource Identifier)?

9 / 65

Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a given Cisco switch
interface? (Choose two.)

10 / 65

In a routing table, which parameter is used first to determine the best path for a packet?

11 / 65

Which of the following are commonly used encoding methods for data in REST APIs? (Choose two)

12 / 65

A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers
cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link.

The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on
the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?

13 / 65

Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?

14 / 65

Which Cisco command displays the status of all interfaces, including their IP address and Layer 1/Layer 2 status?

15 / 65

What is "SSID" in the context of Wireless LANs?

16 / 65

How does an OSPF router determine which path to a destination is "best" when multiple paths exist?

17 / 65

A REST API response returns a status code of "403". What does this indicate?

18 / 65

A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is
from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782.
The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing
table?

19 / 65

What is the Class B Private addresses range?

20 / 65

In a Wireless LAN, what is the role of a Wireless LAN Controller (WLC) in a "Split-MAC" architecture?

21 / 65

In a controller-based architecture, what is the function of a "Southbound API"?

22 / 65

Which Cisco DNA Center feature provides a "time-machine" ability to look back at network health and issues up to 14 days in the past?

23 / 65

What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) PortFast feature?

24 / 65

What is the specific purpose of the ip helper-address command on a Cisco router interface?

25 / 65

How many usable hosts are in a /30 network?

26 / 65

Which IPv6 address type is used to send a single packet to multiple destinations simultaneously?

27 / 65

What is the broadcast address for the subnet 172.16.10.32/28?

28 / 65

Which field in the IPv4 header is used to prevent a packet from looping indefinitely on a network?

29 / 65

Which configuration management tool is "Agentless" and uses SSH for communication?

30 / 65

Which two statements about IPv6 and routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)

31 / 65

What is "Configuration Drift"?

32 / 65

Given the address 192.168.1.0/26, what is the subnet mask in dotted-decimal format?

33 / 65

Which of the following best describes an "Overlay Network"?

34 / 65

What is the key difference between XML and JSON?

35 / 65

In a routing table, what does a code of "L" next to an entry signify?

36 / 65

Which configuration management tool is "agentless" and uses SSH to communicate with managed network devices?

37 / 65

Which technology supports the stateless assignment of IPv6 addresses?

38 / 65

Refer to the exhibit. What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?

39 / 65

In 172.16.10.16/24 network how many hosts are possible?

40 / 65

Which network topology is typically associated with Cisco ACI (Application Centric Infrastructure) and modern data center designs to effectively handle East-West traffic?

41 / 65

What is the default subnet mask for a Class B network?

42 / 65

Which of the following is the default binary prefix used for IPv6 Link-Local addresses?

43 / 65

Which IPv6 address type communication is restricted to a single local segment and is not routable?

44 / 65

Which of the following statement is true for Class B addresses?

45 / 65

What is the compressed format of the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0001?

46 / 65

In an SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) architecture, what is the role of the MIB (Management Information Base)?

47 / 65

Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be
the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)

48 / 65

Which of the following describes the function of a Collision Domain in a network connected by a modern Layer 2 switch?

49 / 65

Which of the following addresses is a valid IPv4 Private Address according to RFC 1918?

50 / 65

Which of the following is a "Physical" security control?

51 / 65

Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly
connected Cisco devices?

52 / 65

What is the primary purpose of a "Native VLAN" on a Cisco switch trunk link?

53 / 65

In OSPF, what is the significance of the "Router ID"?

54 / 65

Refer to the exhibit. The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950 Switch.
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1
The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1. What two functions will occur when this frame
is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two.)

55 / 65

Which command sequence can you enter to create VLAN 20 and assign it to an interface on a switch?

56 / 65

Which two spanning-tree port states does RSTP combine to allow faster convergence? (Choose two.)

57 / 65

Which command on a Cisco router blocks login attempts for 30 seconds if there are 2 failed attempts within a 10-second window?

58 / 65

What is the first octet range for a Class D address, and what is its purpose?

59 / 65

Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)

60 / 65

Why is UDP preferred over TCP for real-time voice and video traffic?

61 / 65

Can the address 172.31.255.254/20 be assigned to a host?

62 / 65

Which address is the "Loopback" address used for testing the local TCP/IP stack?

63 / 65

What is the primary function of a Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW) compared to a traditional stateful firewall?

64 / 65

An OSPF router is connected to a network with a broadcast multi-access medium (like Ethernet). Which two OSPF states indicate that the adjacency is fully formed and routing information has been synchronized? (Choose two)

65 / 65

A router receives a packet for 192.168.1.155. It has routes for 192.168.1.0/24 and 192.168.1.128/25. Which route will it use?

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